Originally posted by julian
From then on you are in debt (albeit good debt), and taking cash from somewhere to 'increase the yield on a property' is false accounting - you could just as well take that cash and pay something off the first property, increasing its yield and leaving the second property 100% financed. The net result is the same.
Likewise, once you have a mortgage, you are totally unable to pay 'cash' for something until you have paid off all debt.
One example is buying a car - never go in to debt to buy a car, as its a liability, not an asset.
BUT, if you have $15,000 to buy a car for 'cash', by doing so, all you are doing is leaving the debt on the mortgage. You could just as well pay off the mortgage, and use the increased cash flow to pay off the loan for the car. It might be that a car loan is more expensive than the mortgage, but, equally, you may be able to get a good deal on the car loan, which makes swapping the mortgage for a car loan attractive.
Am I right, and putting more money in to a property to increase its yield is not possible past the first one, or can someone highlight the error in my thoughts?
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