No, that's not the point. I understand that in real terms, but I was talking flat rate % to emphasise the fundamental mistake when using this stmt:
10-12% of the earners pay 44% of tax.
Which may well be true. HOWEVER...
if the same 10-12% of earners earn, say, 50% of the total income (any value above 44%) then are they paying their fair share?
If they paid 44% of the tax but only earned 10% of the income then sure, they are paying more than their share.
Example:
10 men. 1 pays $44 in tax. 2-10 pay $7.33 each in tax. 10% of this population pays 44% of the total tax take.
But what if man 1 earns $1000 in that tax year (he has a good structure and a clever accountant). Men 2-10 each earn $50.
So man 1 has earned 68% of the total income, yet has only contributed 44% of tax. Men 2-10 have each earned 3.4% of the total income, yet have contributed 7.33% of the tax take.
Hence the reason why you need to be careful quoting facts such as the above stmt.
10-12% of the earners pay 44% of tax.
Which may well be true. HOWEVER...
if the same 10-12% of earners earn, say, 50% of the total income (any value above 44%) then are they paying their fair share?
If they paid 44% of the tax but only earned 10% of the income then sure, they are paying more than their share.
Example:
10 men. 1 pays $44 in tax. 2-10 pay $7.33 each in tax. 10% of this population pays 44% of the total tax take.
But what if man 1 earns $1000 in that tax year (he has a good structure and a clever accountant). Men 2-10 each earn $50.
So man 1 has earned 68% of the total income, yet has only contributed 44% of tax. Men 2-10 have each earned 3.4% of the total income, yet have contributed 7.33% of the tax take.
Hence the reason why you need to be careful quoting facts such as the above stmt.
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