Hi All,
I am looking at putting an offer in on my first IP, and am hoping from some guidance from my fellow PTers.
First, some good news (at least I think it is good news). I have located a property that has excellent potential for better-than-average capital growth. I have managed to get pre-approval for the purchase funds without having to cross-collateralise. I'll be releasing equity (up to 80% LVR) from my PPOR with bank A to use as a 10% deposit with bank B.
My first question is: Will I be able to claim as costs the interest costs on the total 100% of the purchase price (which = borrowing), or only on the 90% borrowed from Bank B? The 10% from Bank A would have been borrowed for the purposes of buying an IP, but how would I prove this to the IRD?
But wait, there's more (and this is where I am hoping for some guidance from you experienced investors). Even if we do purchase the IP for our price, it will produce a 5% gross yield. If I have done my figures correctly, then the IP will be cashflow neutral or slightly better after tax. I have been conservative with depreciation figures and chattels value, and have been pessimistic with respect to repairs and maintanence. We will have a good lump sum ($20000 or so) available to cover the cashflow deficit in the first year, until the tax rebate comes in the second year.
We are buying the property for its long-term capital growth (we have a minimum 10 year investment horizon), and we are happy with the low yield. However, I realise that, unbeknownst to myself, I might be wanting to do something foolish. If any of you have any cautionary advice (or encouraging advice for that matter) I would be very grateful to hear it.
Very best,
Paul.
I am looking at putting an offer in on my first IP, and am hoping from some guidance from my fellow PTers.
First, some good news (at least I think it is good news). I have located a property that has excellent potential for better-than-average capital growth. I have managed to get pre-approval for the purchase funds without having to cross-collateralise. I'll be releasing equity (up to 80% LVR) from my PPOR with bank A to use as a 10% deposit with bank B.
My first question is: Will I be able to claim as costs the interest costs on the total 100% of the purchase price (which = borrowing), or only on the 90% borrowed from Bank B? The 10% from Bank A would have been borrowed for the purposes of buying an IP, but how would I prove this to the IRD?
But wait, there's more (and this is where I am hoping for some guidance from you experienced investors). Even if we do purchase the IP for our price, it will produce a 5% gross yield. If I have done my figures correctly, then the IP will be cashflow neutral or slightly better after tax. I have been conservative with depreciation figures and chattels value, and have been pessimistic with respect to repairs and maintanence. We will have a good lump sum ($20000 or so) available to cover the cashflow deficit in the first year, until the tax rebate comes in the second year.
We are buying the property for its long-term capital growth (we have a minimum 10 year investment horizon), and we are happy with the low yield. However, I realise that, unbeknownst to myself, I might be wanting to do something foolish. If any of you have any cautionary advice (or encouraging advice for that matter) I would be very grateful to hear it.
Very best,
Paul.



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