Hi all
I would like to know how other investors (with numerous properties) get around this. My initial understanding was that as long as the properties were paying for themselves (postive cashflow) then serviceability shouldn't be an issue. I don't really know where I got that from - someone must have told me!
I have a PPOR (which is nearly freehold) and 3 investment properties. I have used the PPOR as security to buy the rentals with 100% finance. Initially, the bank wanted to throw money at me. All three rentals are owned by our LAQC.
My partner and myself are self employed and take wages and pay PAYE. But as you would know that owning a business has it's ups and downs and last year we didn't always pay ourselves first. Subsequently our wages were quite low, plus we also had another baby since first applying for our mortgages.
So I went to the bank and asked if we could have another $100k and they said no. The reason was that of serviceability. We were something like $800 short a month. But I said to them wouldn't that mean that everytime we bought another property our wages would have to increase. And I think that basically they said yes. They said even though the LAQC owns the properties we are still personally liable for them if they are all vacant at the same time, therefore the amount of the mortgages (around $1350) per month must be able to come out of our wages. I thought this was stupid.
I then decided to try a Broker. I went to Mike Pero mortgages. The woman basically said the same thing. I thought about it afterwards and thought hold on - you are not treating me as an investor, you are treating me as if I were Mum and Dad buying a house.
The computer programmes that they use to work out serviceability - are the same whether you are Mum and Dad or an investor.
So people with really big portfolio's - how do they do it? Surely their incomes don't have to go up every time they buy a house. And in fact they do don't they, because rent is part of your income. But then it's negatived out again because they say you are liable for all rent.
Am I missing the point somewhere! I can't seem to get them to understand my point. Am I talking Japanese?
Cheers, QB
I would like to know how other investors (with numerous properties) get around this. My initial understanding was that as long as the properties were paying for themselves (postive cashflow) then serviceability shouldn't be an issue. I don't really know where I got that from - someone must have told me!
I have a PPOR (which is nearly freehold) and 3 investment properties. I have used the PPOR as security to buy the rentals with 100% finance. Initially, the bank wanted to throw money at me. All three rentals are owned by our LAQC.
My partner and myself are self employed and take wages and pay PAYE. But as you would know that owning a business has it's ups and downs and last year we didn't always pay ourselves first. Subsequently our wages were quite low, plus we also had another baby since first applying for our mortgages.
So I went to the bank and asked if we could have another $100k and they said no. The reason was that of serviceability. We were something like $800 short a month. But I said to them wouldn't that mean that everytime we bought another property our wages would have to increase. And I think that basically they said yes. They said even though the LAQC owns the properties we are still personally liable for them if they are all vacant at the same time, therefore the amount of the mortgages (around $1350) per month must be able to come out of our wages. I thought this was stupid.
I then decided to try a Broker. I went to Mike Pero mortgages. The woman basically said the same thing. I thought about it afterwards and thought hold on - you are not treating me as an investor, you are treating me as if I were Mum and Dad buying a house.
The computer programmes that they use to work out serviceability - are the same whether you are Mum and Dad or an investor.
So people with really big portfolio's - how do they do it? Surely their incomes don't have to go up every time they buy a house. And in fact they do don't they, because rent is part of your income. But then it's negatived out again because they say you are liable for all rent.
Am I missing the point somewhere! I can't seem to get them to understand my point. Am I talking Japanese?
Cheers, QB


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