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  • xris
    Fanatical
    • Nov 2005
    • 3283

    #1

    tick-tock, tick-tock, tick-tock...B....

    However, by assigning S&P contracts prior to settlement and receiving a fee for doing this (in other words being a property finder) you are acting as a Real Estate agent. Being a Real Estate agent is not a crime, but if you are an agent you have to do it legally, which the majority of property finders are not doing. They are therefore breaking the law. This fact in itself may be of no less significance to you than whether or not property finders are classed as property traders and whether or not their buy-and-hold properties are being tainted.


    Three people have now contacted me regarding this statement. They have added weight to my own nagging feeling of unease, that perhaps I am not being as fair as I should be.

    I appreciate that it is very easy for me to say that people are breaking the law knowing that in so doing it causes a lot of worry and annoyance, whether it is true or not. This is particularly the case if I do not explain more fully what I mean. (This is the thrust of those three different messages.) I felt that I had explained reasonably well what I meant, but obviously not. Perhaps this is due in part to the somewhat clumsy way in which I first broached the subject:

    http://www.propertytalk.com/forum/showthread.php?t=5379

    The last thing I want is to be accused of being a muck-raking, mud-slinging nuisance, or simply an annoying, irresponsible heckler from the sidelines.

    For these reasons, as well as the fact that it is a matter of importance to all investors, especially property traders, I feel I do have a responsibility to stop beating about the bush, make it crystal clear what my point is, and then perhaps leave it be.

    To do this I have chosen to write almost as if making a case in a courtroom. I would like to invite those who disagree with me to respond with a little more detail than simply saying: “I don’t agree”, which is both unhelpful to other readers and does their case no good at all. Members and readers of this site can then make up their own minds and perhaps make comments and observations of their own. Unless asked to on this site I will not make further comment on, or bring this subject up, again, because if nothing else, it could well be true what FatBelly says, that we may need to agree to disagree.

    Before beginning, some general points follow:

    1/ This is my opinion only.

    2/ This is not personal against anyone.

    3/ Some people will not understand what I am talking about because a/ English is not their mother tongue (fair enough); or b/ They are not very bright (I cannot help that); or c/ They do not want to think about it because the consequences of so doing are too unpleasant (That is human nature, but again one I cannot do much about).

    4/ As in an earlier thread I would like to look at Dean’s post below because it neatly summarises the opposing position, namely that as a finder, you are acting as an intermediary between a buyer and seller for the sale of a contract, not land or a building and cannot therefore be classed a Real Estate agent (REA). I want now to show why this position is wrong.

    Dean: This is not correct. By assigning contracts prior to settlement and receiving a fee you are charging a fee in exchange for a contract. You are NOT introducing a buyer and a seller and therefore am in no way operating as an agent. You are selling a CONTRACT, not a property.

    http://www.propertytalk.com/forum/showthread.php?t=6236


    **************

    We first need to be clear what finders actually are. They as the buyer sign a S&P Agreement (SPA) with a vendor conditional on certain points, one of which is likely to be a due diligence clause or some other ‘get out’ clause. The finder will also put down on the SPA as the buyer his own name, or nominee (or something similar). This practice is not uncommon and is often used by people who may, prior to settlement, want to put the property into a family trust or joint ownership with the spouse, or some other ownership structure. But in the case of a finder the intention is quite different. The finder will be looking to find another, possibly unknown, buyer whom he will be able to use as his ‘nominee’. In other words, the contract will be assigned to a third party. When this happens, the new buyer will pay the first buyer (the finder) a fee for his trouble. The new buyer wins because he can now buy (settle on) a property at a supposedly good price and without having to go through all the hassle of looking and negotiating himself. The first buyer (finder) wins because he walks away with his finder’s fee and has none of the hassle, and expense, of having to settle on (buy) the property himself. The vendor wins because he gets a sale. That is the theory: the reality is often different, but that is another matter. I say these finders are acting as REA while others say no, they are merely selling a contract or option to buy a property, not the property itself.

    We now need to look at the Real Estate Agents Act 1976, in particular section 3. This section is entitled ‘Meaning of real estate agent’ and it is here, obviously, where we can find what a REA is in the eyes of the law. I will not quote the whole section because I cannot type that fast and because my computer ability is not great enough to upload it from somewhere else. (Maybe someone can help out here. I do not think copyright is an issue.) I will however type in the relevant words.


    S 3(1) says

    …every person shall be deemed to be a REA who acts, or holds himself out to the public as ready to act, for reward as an agent in respect of the sale or other disposal of land…whether or not that person carries on any other business.

    Pretty general and vague, isn’t it. Or is it? Let’s look at it more closely bearing in mind Dean’s comments.

    Dean: You are NOT introducing a buyer and a seller and therefore am in no way operating as an agent

    The word introduce is common REA talk and relates to the commission due from the client and the split of that commission between agents. It also relates to whether or not a buyer is physically taken onto the vendor’s property. It is not mentioned in S 3(1) because it does not need to be: it is not relevant. The second part of the sentence does not therefore necessarily follow from the first.

    Dean: You are selling a CONTRACT, not a property.

    However, look at S 3 again. It could be argued that you are most definitely introducing a buyer (of land) and a seller (of land), even if it is only on paper. The final sale (of land) will, after all, be between the vendor and the purchaser, a deal brought about by the finder. Has not the finder therefore introduced the buyer (of land) to the vendor (of land), even if the vendor does not know about it? As such, the finder is acting as an agent (being an intermediary between two parties in the sale of land).

    At one level though it could be argued, as the finders and Dean argue, that they are merely selling the contract, the piece of paper, and not the land it entitles the buyer to purchase. However, I believe that S 3 is intentionally vague in order to cover all possible variations of ways in which a person can act as an agent in the sale of land. As the two examples here show.

    It avoids using just the word sale, choosing rather the phrase sale or other disposal of land, (presumably to cover people who try to get out of the Act by swapping land or paying for it in kind).

    It avoids using the words fee or monetary payment, choosing instead the far more all-encompassing word reward.

    So, I believe the intention of S 3(1) is quite clear on closer examination, even if at first sight it is open to different interpretations. Similarly, I believe that to say that finders are selling contracts and not land takes a rather narrow and simplistic view of S 3(1), even if it is one that many people, including inferior lawyers, may take. Remember: the law abhors pedants.

    How more clearly can the Act be putting across the intention of S 3(1)? Quite easily. Let us look at S 3(2).

    Here we have a list of people and entities that are exempt from S 3(1). They include solicitors doing conveyancing and auctioneers. But why bother to put these people down as exemptions? Surely it is obvious that an auctioneer is not a REA when he is standing there hammer in hand saying going, going, gone? Well no, it is not at all obvious, because in so doing he is acting as an intermediary between a buyer and a seller in the disposal of land, as defined in S 3(1). The same would apply to a solicitor quietly sitting at his desk drawing up the transfer deeds. There would be absolutely no need for S 3(2)(a/b) unless my interpretation of S 3(1) were correct.

    But S 3(2)(a/b) is there because my interpretation of S 3(1) is correct and the interpretation of Dean and many finders out there is incorrect.

    *******************************

    And here a quick note about and to Kieran Trass. Between them, Kieran, his wallet and his QC appear to have drawn a similar conclusion to mine, although no doubt by using considerably more convincing and compelling legal logic. (I earlier in another post said that I still thought you, Kieran were in breach of the Act. That was before you mentioned that you traded with contemporaneous sales. Thank you for telling us that, which you did not need to do, even if it was not clear from your website. Now that I know that, and for what it is worth, I think you probably are not caught by
    S 3(1). So good on you, you have proved once again that if you want good advice you usually have to pay for it.

    ***********************

    To conclude, I am not unaware of the implications of this. Let us assume that I am correct. What follows?

    Finders are deemed to be Real Estate agents.

    They are in breach of the REA Act because they are not licensed as agents.

    Notwithstanding that, they are almost certainly also in breach of a whole host of rules and regulations to which REAs have to conform, far too many to name here, but most of them covered elsewhere in the REA Act 1976.

    And let us also not forget the many other Acts which affect the REA’s business: Fair Trading Act; Consumer Guarantees Act; and so on. Goodness, the list goes on and on.

    Somewhere at sometime this Act will be tested on some poor property trader who is likely to be given a severe thumping. Many of you who are doing this are doing it almost as a hobby, a sideline to your normal job. You may feel that you will not be singled out and that the penalties will not be that harsh anyway. For you others who make your living from doing this, with businesses, employees and reputations to protect, you may need to think a little more carefully about what you are doing, especially if you have a high public profile.

    To those who say, what are you bringing this up for? What harm is it doing anyone anyway, even if it is against the law? Why put people down for trying to get ahead? I would say the following:

    Despite what many of you think, the REA Act is there to protect the public, not the RE industry. When you have unregulated amateurs playing games like ‘finding’ with people’s property (often the roof over their head) hurt will be caused somewhere. (We could look at what actually often happens during one of these ‘deals’ finders are so happy to brag about: a topic for another thread perhaps?) Because we do not live in a Stalinist state we fortunately cannot regulate against people choosing to sell or buy privately. There are numerous examples I know of where people who choose to do this (as is their right), end up losing money. They have nobody to blame but themselves. For me, when I am looking for a steal, the first place I look is the private sale columns.

    After I first brought this subject up I was a little surprised to see that so many otherwise intelligent and honest members were carrying on offering ‘deals’ and giving advice on ‘finding’ as if there was no real problem with it. I could only conclude that they were taking poor advice from lawyers or others senior traders, or that the reality of what they were/are doing and the corresponding consequences were too unpleasant to think about: they buried their heads in the sand.

    Although this post may cause disharmony, I trust, cube, it will not become shy like the earlier thread. Surely it is for every investor’s and trader’s benefit to read it?



    As I said earlier, I will not bring this subject up again elsewhere although I shall continue to comment on it in this thread if anybody chooses to ask questions or wants to enter into a discussion.

    I look forward to reading follow-up comments, but please, keep it clean!


    xris
    Last edited by cube; 03-04-2006, 08:54 AM.
  • cube
    Thinking outside the square.
    • Jun 2005
    • 5076

    #2
    Thanks xris - definitely food for thought.

    You can view section 3 of the act here

    To view the whole act go here and use the links on the left to find the Real Estate Agents Act 1976

    cube
    DFTBA

    Comment

    • whitt
      Fanatical
      • Jun 2005
      • 3922

      #3
      Xris
      Well done , very good research.

      Comment

      • RentMaster
        Addicted
        • Jun 2005
        • 914

        #4
        That is a compelling argument Xris.

        Property finding is not new. There are quite a few people doing it. However as far as I know no-one is complaining they are doing the wrong thing. Or maybe they are, and I just dont know about it.

        Comment

        • Dean@Massiveaction
          Giving life my best shot
          • Jun 2005
          • 5213

          #5
          This will be my only comment in this thread and I only make it as my advice is being maligned.
          1. It is my professional opinion that providing the correct assignment documents are being used there is absolutely no issue with assigning contracts, as I have already stated and explained
          2. This opinion is backed up, not only by my own solicitors, but also by a senior queens counsel who investigated the matter and made REINZ pull their head in when they were trying to have a go at a finder over this. It was absolutely proven to the courts and REINZ that it was legal.
          3. You need to make your mind up whether you will be "advised" by a nameless faceless poster who may have any number of axes to grind and ulterior motives for his opinions.

          Comment

          • Julian
            Fanatical
            • Jan 2005
            • 1524

            #6
            Two powerful sides to a good argument that has the potential to affect many. What is the next step from here? It would be nice to get some qualified legal interpretation. I know with the IRD you can apply for a ruling on some tax issue that may be subject to various interpretations. Is it possible to get similar binding ruling from other legal bodies?
            Julian
            Gimme $20k. You will receive some well packaged generic advice that will put you on the road to riches beyond your wildest dreams ...yeah right!

            Comment

            • Don and Liz
              Forum Junkie
              • Aug 2005
              • 357

              #7
              seems what dean is saying is that he and others have paid for and already received qualified legal opinions and based on that paid advice taken a course of action to make sure that all the right processes are in place. Xris -are you a real estate agent or a lawyer?

              Xris - you seem very passionate about the subject but your argument exposes some very serious weaknesses in the the logic you have used and your knowledge base from which you have made your comments.

              However, I believe that S 3 is intentionally vague in order to cover all possible variations of ways in which a person can act as an agent in the sale of land. As the two examples here show.

              This statement shows that you do not have even a rudimentary grasp of law so you should leave the interpretation of legislation up to the lawyers. Any legislation that is vague would be invalid for "uncertainty".

              To intentionally draft a piece of legislation to be vague would never be contemplated.

              All through your argument you have tried to examine this piece of legislation using the common meanings of the words as your frame of reference which is fundamentally wrong. In this context the meanings of these words would be interpreted according to their long established legal meanings.


              This act needs to be read against a wider body of law that I hazard to guess you have not yet had the benefit of being exposed to. There is still time and we are all still learning which is the great thing about these forums. They help us with "ideas". However, if I want "facts" I usually pay people for there opinion.



              Regards,


              Don
              Last edited by Don and Liz; 03-04-2006, 10:30 PM.

              Comment

              • cube
                Thinking outside the square.
                • Jun 2005
                • 5076

                #8
                Originally posted by pooomba
                2. This opinion is backed up, not only by my own solicitors, but also by a senior queens counsel who investigated the matter and made REINZ pull their head in when they were trying to have a go at a finder over this. It was absolutely proven to the courts and REINZ that it was legal.
                Hi Dean

                Was this the subject of a court case, or an opinion sought from a QC? If it has been proven to the courts, is there a record somewhere that we can all access?

                cube
                DFTBA

                Comment

                • Dean@Massiveaction
                  Giving life my best shot
                  • Jun 2005
                  • 5213

                  #9
                  REINZ dropped the legal action as a result of the QC's report on the act. In other words, they were going to lose their case, so they went away.

                  Comment

                  • CJ
                    Fanatical
                    • Oct 2003
                    • 3570

                    #10
                    Your previous comment was a little misleading then ("proven to the courts") but that is positive news. Was this on your contracts/system or on someone elses?

                    Comment

                    • xris
                      Fanatical
                      • Nov 2005
                      • 3283

                      #11
                      Thanks everyone for the remarks so far. My comments on them, in no particular order are:

                      Dean

                      It was absolutely proven to the courts and REINZ that it was legal.


                      I was going to say: “Quote the case”, but cube and cj got in before me. We should all remember that the only decision that really matters is the Court’s decision. All other decisions are merely opinions, even a QC’s.

                      You say ‘in my professional opinion’. You have undeniable abilities, but I do not believe that you are a lawyer. So, in this respect your opinion is not a professional legal opinion and is of no greater worth than anybody else’s here.

                      REINZ dropped the legal action as a result of the QC's report on the act. In other words, they were going to lose their case, so they went away.

                      I am a little surprised that you said this. It is hearsay. It is guesswork. It is opinion. If what you say is true, it is based on one particular case only with any number of possible variables and cannot in any way be used to counter the general points I have made above about finders being RE agents.

                      …providing the correct assignment documents are being used there is absolutely no issue with assigning contracts, as I have already stated and explained

                      This may or may not be true but you are trying to move the goal-posts. It should be obvious that I am referring to the traditional and probably the most widely used technique finders use for ‘flicking’ properties from themselves to another party, (as earlier described). There may be ways of achieving the same result legally (contemporaneously buying and selling may be one, as might another technique employing a skilfully constructed legal document), but that is another matter). And incidentally, you have stated it but you have not explained it.

                      You need to make your mind up whether you will be "advised" by a nameless faceless poster who may have any number of axes to grind and ulterior motives for his opinions.

                      I have never given advice other than to do suggest that people look at the evidence and make their own minds up. I have repeatedly stated that my comments are my opinion only.

                      I stated at the beginning of my first post that I was aware that this accusation could be thrown at me and that it was a valid point to a certain extent. That is why I have gone out of my way to state my case as clearly as possible, especially in light of the serious nature of what I am suggesting. However, I do feel that the accusatorial tone of your comment is unjustified. There are very many people using this site who choose, for various personal and professional reasons, to remain anonymous. Are you trying to say that their opinions are all worthless and always inspired by malice just because you do not like or agree with them?

                      This will be my only comment in this thread and I only make it as my advice is being maligned.

                      I am glad you have changed your mind. Your continued contribution is important and welcome. Maligned? Similar strong language again. Do you feel that every person who ventures an opinion which differs from yours is maligning you? Again, I am a little surprised at this comment.

                      Don

                      Many thanks for your very welcome post. At last, something with a bite to it, if only with milk teeth.

                      seems what dean is saying is that he and others have paid for and already received qualified legal opinions and based on that paid advice taken a course of action to make sure that all the right processes are in place.

                      Agree entirely, with one exception, which surely is a main point of this thread:

                      taken a course of action to make sure (in their assumption) that all the right processes are in place.

                      Just because a professional gives advice, does not make it correct.


                      I wrote:

                      However, I believe that S 3 is intentionally vague in order to cover all possible variations of ways in which a person can act as an agent in the sale of land. As the two examples here show.


                      You/Don wrote:

                      Any legislation that is vague would be invalid for "uncertainty".

                      Vague may or may not have been the best choice of words (although I think it is fine). Ambiguous or Open to different interpretation are alternatives which you may prefer, but in the end the meaning is quite clear to a reader of even below average intelligence, and it all amounts to the same thing in the end anyway.


                      Would be invalid for uncertainty? Where did you get this from? Did you make it up?

                      To intentionally draft a piece of legislation to be vague would never be contemplated.

                      Do you know how our system of government works? Any legislation which is intended to be wide ranging and all encompassing must, to a degree, be general, vague, ambiguous. If I told you that legislation is frequently drafted and put in the hands of the judiciary to tell us what it means, would you, Don, know what I was talking about?

                      The RTA says all tenancy agreements must be in writing. It also says that a tenancy can exist if there is no written contract. Is this ambiguous enough for you? The TT is thus given the freedom to interpret the law on the merits of each individual case.

                      If there were no ambiguity or differences of opinion or alternative interpretations, then we would not need courts, lawyers, judges. Think about it.

                      This statement shows that you do not have even a rudimentary grasp of law so you should leave the interpretation of legislation up to the lawyers.

                      As lawyers have different interpretations of the law, as is only common sense and as is constantly shown by numerous examples on this site, I cannot see what purpose this comment serves.

                      All through your argument you have tried to examine this piece of legislation using the common meanings of the words as your frame of reference which is fundamentally wrong. In this context the meanings of these words would be interpreted according to their long established legal meanings.

                      Correct, I have. The common meaning always takes precedence if the Courts have established no alternative meaning. Please tell me which words in this part of the Act do not have their common meaning but rather the “courts’” meaning. Partly to answer that question myself, the word agent may need to be clarified somewhat for the purpose of S 3, but I do not really think so.

                      However, if I want "facts" I usually pay people for there opinion.

                      So have a large number of readers here paid professionals to set up their structures correctly. Some of those readers have given us lengthy examples of how those professionals have got it wrong and cost them, the clients, a considerable amount of money trying to sort the mess out later. Perhaps you are one of these people who have taken professional advice and do not yet realise that it isn’t worth the paper it is written on.

                      Anyway, thanks for your post and, at the very least, for giving this subject some thought and taking the time to write more than a few words in reply.

                      xris
                      Last edited by xris; 04-04-2006, 07:37 PM.

                      Comment

                      • whitt
                        Fanatical
                        • Jun 2005
                        • 3922

                        #12
                        Xris
                        You make some valid points.
                        Maybe Kieran Trass was onto something when the changed there service?

                        Comment

                        • Don and Liz
                          Forum Junkie
                          • Aug 2005
                          • 357

                          #13
                          Hi Xris,

                          The reason I know that you don't know what you are talking about is because I know what I'm talking about

                          Good to see you have still got a sense of humor even though you are very passionate about this issue.

                          In the end, you may be proven right, that is, the Courts may interpret this piece of legislation to mean exactly what you think it does. If that happens, then those among us who are "early adopters" of new ideas will simply change tack or adopt a new model in order to succeed.

                          However, if you are right it would be by the biggest coincidence in history because the logic and methods you have used to arrive at your conclusions are fundamentally flawed.

                          Statutory interpretation is a highly technical detailed and specialised skill. To try and explain this in detail is beyond the scope of this post. However, I will make a few very important points:

                          Firstly, no one piece of legislation stands in isolation and must be read in context. The affect of a piece of legislation on an individual and their legal rights will be determined by that persons existing legal rights. In other words, laws do not exist in isolation and are subject to interpretation in the context of a wider body of complex principles and rules.

                          Secondly, as a starting point we must look at the purpose of a piece of legislation - that is, why was it written and who is it trying to effect? The answer to this question will give you a fairly solid basis for understanding what the scope of the legislation is. For example, if a piece of legislation was written for the regulation and registration of real estate professionals, then it is unlikely that it would have the scope to infringe upon the long established legislative and common law rights of individuals to transact in relation to contracts. Simply, it may be beyond the power of this Act to regulate what you think it purports to do.

                          Thirdly, you are right - again! Courts do argue at length about the true and accurate meaning of words and legislation and how those words and legislation affect individuals. This is why there is absolutely no room whatsoever for vagueness or unclarity. For example, if you wanted to create a law to affect a class of persons, you would have to clearly indicate who that class of person is. If for example after all the arguing the Court found that the legislation could not properly be constructed or interpreted to determine the matter with "certainty" then this law will be invalid.

                          For example, if the Court determines that a reasonable person in all the circumstances at the time could not determine with sufficient clarity what his rights and obligations are in relation to a matter, then the law will be invalid for uncertainty - so to answer your question - no, I did not make this up.

                          Further to that, this is a firmly established principle based on public policy grounds, that is, in business and life generally we need certainty in order to promote economic activity. If businesses or individuals do not know what laws are or how they will affect them, they will become frozen to a point of inaction. We need to know what the rules are. You can't just say "I want to write a law about this and it will mean whatever I say it means when we have the trial"

                          I have a few volumes of things here on my desk that I need interpreted - shall I pass these on to you so you can have a crack at it?

                          Regards,

                          Don

                          Comment

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