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Why Are Lawyers Exempt?

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  • Why Are Lawyers Exempt?

    So one buys a commercial rental. The valuer’s fee is
    deductible. The LIM report cost is deductible. The
    accountant’s fee is deductible. The builder’s inspection
    fee is deductible. And so it goes on.

    But the lawyer’s fee is not deductible!

    Why? It’s an expense, analogous to the others that
    I’ve listed.

  • #2
    Agree with your sentiments Perry - it is a bit of a strange one. There is often a grey line in the capital/revenue distinction imo.

    I think what the legislature was trying to get at the situation of capital assets being acquired, and lawyers' fees to procure such asset went hand in hand with that asset - so they thought, will not capitalise the legal fees too.

    When I practised law we had an almighty argument with the IRD, when acting for one of the leading commercial landowning companies in NZ on the capital/revenue distinction and the deductibility of legal fees.

    To cut a long story very short, the rationale and select committee papers behind the reason for legal fees not being deductible is that they relate to the acquisition of an asset (held on capital account). Due diligence costs, accountant's fees, bank charges, valuer's costs are all deductible because there is a nexus between the revenue generating activities (or necesssary compliance activities ancilliary to the lease income).

    Take note though, that legal fees in relation to financing costs are generally deductible.

    Comment


    • #3
      "It's our job to be fair," the old advert cliche went.

      The IRD's efforts to oblige farmers changing to dairy to
      capitalise the cost of grassing was another strange
      beast. I don't know whether or not they persisted with
      that crazy idea, but I wondered what the capital value
      of a blade of grass would be, when included in the
      depreciation schedule.

      Letting politicians decide on tax matters (from whence
      comes their stipend) is like letting the Mongrel Mob be
      the jury in a dope case.

      Comment


      • #4
        My understanding from my accountant was that costs associated with the purchase of the property must be capitalised but costs associated with obtaining a mortgage are expensed. If you need a valuation for the mortgage then expense it. If your lawyer will seperate the purchase from the mortgage claim on those portions otherwise I split down the middle.

        Comment


        • #5
          Originally posted by Wayne
          My understanding from my accountant was that costs
          associated with the purchase of the property must be
          capitalised but costs associated with obtaining a mortgage
          are expensed. If you need a valuation for the mortgage then
          expense it. If your lawyer will separate the purchase from
          the mortgage claim on those portions otherwise I split down
          the middle.
          I think your accountant is being rather conservative.
          E.g. I would expect that obtaining a LIM report would
          not be capitalised.

          I find the hair-splitting over revenue expense versus capital
          expense very frustrating and inconsistent. The general
          principle is (used to be) that any expense could be either
          capitalised or expensed, but certainly not both. A capital
          item is something that's included in the depreciation
          schedule and is depreciated. An expense item is a purchase
          of something that does not result in the a depreciable object.

          So petrol purchased for the car is expensed, the purchase
          of the car is capitalised.

          A toll call is expensed, the purchase of the telephone is
          capitalised.

          Neither the petrol nor the toll call are assets that can be
          depreciated. The car and the telephone are assets that can
          be depreciated.

          The cost of the toll call is not added to the capital value
          of the telephone. Nor is the cost of the petrol added to the
          capital value of the car.


          OK, so far?

          So one purchases a commercial property with the intention
          of renting it to a tenant. The purchase price of the property
          is what is (should be) put into the lessor's depreciation
          schedule. The costs associated with that purchase, all the due
          diligence things, plus associated fees, survey, builder and
          other reports; accountant and lawyer services, land transfer
          fees, etc., are all expenses in that do not directly produce
          a depreciable item. Only indirectly are they instrumental in
          obtaining a depreciable item. They are an indirect,
          associated cost of obtaining an asset. They are not assets in
          themselves, in the capital sense of that word.

          But, by a piece of crafty sleight-of-hand, the IRD decides
          that, in the interests of it's more immediate cash flow, some
          of those expenses must be added to the purchase price of the
          asset and some not. I.e. inconsistency abounds in the cause
          of pecuniary self-interest.

          Comment


          • #6
            Fast Forward . . .

            Previous posts have dealt with purchases. However, the
            same non-deductible sleight-of-hand applies to 'normal'
            business expenses.

            Let's say that a lease is drawn up for a commercial property.
            The lessee and lessor's lawyers are involved. The standard
            term in the lease agreement - a normal cost of business, says
            that the lessee shall pay the lessor's legal costs.

            In part, I speculate that's because the lessor can't claim them
            as a deductible revenue expense. It certainly couldn't be called
            a capital expense, even by the IRD's super-elastic standards
            of convenience.

            Right, David? I.e. it's not a grey area, it's a grab area!

            Comment


            • #7
              As far as I am aware this is because it is expected that the lessee pays all costs - for anything. We had a building where the tennant paid for our loss of rent insurance.

              If the lessee didn't pay it would be claimable by the lessor as far as I know (I am not an accountant though!).

              Comment

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