Hi all, can someone please shed a light. Tenancy rule states 1 or 2 weeks rent in advance can only be required by landlord. How come I see a lot of rental properties requiring 3 weeks in advance rent? Is there a reason behind this? And is there a loophole in the tenancy agreement?
"It is unlawful for a landlord to require the tenant to pay more than 2 weeks’ rent in advance, or to require the tenant to make a rent payment before all the rent that’s already been paid has been used up."
Cheers
"It is unlawful for a landlord to require the tenant to pay more than 2 weeks’ rent in advance, or to require the tenant to make a rent payment before all the rent that’s already been paid has been used up."
Cheers
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