I asked the following question on the Trademe message board. No answers there yet, and thought I'd probably get a better answer here.
This is from the IRD booklet IR260 - Depreciation:
"If you inherit depreciable assets, there can be no
depreciation because there has been no cost to
you."
This relates to claiming depreciation after transfer from the estate.
What is not clear to me is whether this means that the asset is then no longer a 'depreciable asset'. Because according to IR260:
"A disposal or sale of a depreciable asset triggers either
a gain or loss on disposal."
Does anyone know?
This is from the IRD booklet IR260 - Depreciation:
"If you inherit depreciable assets, there can be no
depreciation because there has been no cost to
you."
This relates to claiming depreciation after transfer from the estate.
What is not clear to me is whether this means that the asset is then no longer a 'depreciable asset'. Because according to IR260:
"A disposal or sale of a depreciable asset triggers either
a gain or loss on disposal."
Does anyone know?
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