Hello people,
At work I'm having a great debate on whether credit card debt can be used as a reason for lenders to force a mortgagee sale to recuperate amounts of money owing. Of course we understand that the credit cards issued and the mortgage must be held by the same lending institution for this question to be asked.
The office is split down the middle, so can you tell me your thoughts.
Can a lender legally foreclose on your mortgage over credit card debt?
At work I'm having a great debate on whether credit card debt can be used as a reason for lenders to force a mortgagee sale to recuperate amounts of money owing. Of course we understand that the credit cards issued and the mortgage must be held by the same lending institution for this question to be asked.
The office is split down the middle, so can you tell me your thoughts.
Can a lender legally foreclose on your mortgage over credit card debt?
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