Does anyone know if a share allocation of 100 shares which are jointly held with others(Husband & Wife) means that the losses from an LAQC(2011 & prior) and dividends from a Qualifying company(post 2011) have to be attributed 50/50.
A friend of mine has the above setup which their accountant did for them when the company was formed.His accountant has been attributing 95% of the LAQC(2011 & prior) losses to him and 5% to his wife.
The company elected to be a Qualifying company from 2012 as it holds cashflow positive rental properties.Their accountant is also looking to allocate 2012 dividends based on the 95/5 split.
I notice that the companies office website says that if a share allocation has more than 1 shareholder the shares will be joiintly owned by those shareholders.Does that mean that the LAQC losses should've been 50/50 between the husband and wife.











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